Hey. New to the site and decided to go head on with the biggest mystery in Armenian history. How did Biainili(Urartu) become Hayastan(Armenia), where did the names Hayastan and Armenia come from? I believe that Hayasa plays a key role in the change from Biainili to Hayastan.
These are my assumptions:
1. If it is true that Indo-Europeans did not originate in Anatolia or the Armenian Highlands, and that Hittites came from beyond the Caucasus and settled in the lands of the non-IE Hattians and inherited their name to become Hittites, then it is possible that Hayasans were part of those unknown IE invaders who settled a little earlier in what became later as Lesser Armenia than their counterparts in Hatti Land. It is also possible that their language changed, and that they are not related to the Hittites at all.
2. We know that Hayasan and Hittites had a relationship and were often allied with the Hittites. As we know, so far, that Hayasans didn't write, we can't know what they spoke, and it is possible that Hayasans spoke the IE language of the invaders who settled in Hatti Land and became the Hittites, aka the Hittite Language.
3. As told by M. Chahin, the Armenian language's structure is so similar to the one of the IE Hittites that it is unlikely that they are unrelated. It is possible that Armens (The people of Armenos) were Phrygianized Hittites or just plainly Phrygians with Hittite influence, or not. We can also assume that, assuming Hayasans spoke a language close to the Hittites, were Phrygianized (yeah... a lot of assumptions, but this is how we come up with theories and reach discoveries, right?).
4. The way I like to understand the reason why we call ourselves Hays and foreigners call us Armenians it is through this analogy:
Take a Greek girl called Armina. Then take an Armenian man called Hayk. Now imagine that Hayk and Armina get married, and Armina moves in the family of Hayk. The Greeks and all those involved with the Greeks will/might call that family "the family of Armina" because she is related to them, but the family will refer to itself as the family of Hayk because he is natively in that family and Armina is the foreigner. But the flaw is the language (hence the point of this thread): why would the children of Hayk speak the language of their mother Armina and forget the language of their father, keeping only some elements of it?
5. Biainili/Urartu was a federative kingdom, or a multi-ethnic empire sharing a border with Hayasa. Historians associate Hayasa with Azzi. If we can assume that Hayasa and Azzi are/were once one state(or related), then we can assume that Azzis may have referred to themselves the same way as Hayasans, knowing that the Azzi portion became almost half of the imperial lands of Urartu, we can assume that the Orontids and/or Yervandunis* came from the inhabitants of Azzi who were of Hayasan origin and when the empire fell from the hands of the ethnic Biaini, they took the throne and changed the name from Biainili (name of the dominating ethnic group) to their own name, Hayastan. This assumption may also be I retold by replacing the Azzis with Hayasans living under Urartu (as it is likely that the north-west portion of Urartu had a geographic overlap with part of Hayasa).
6. All this assuming Hayasans acquired the -stan suffix in their language under the Median rule (assuming -stan was a suffix used by those Iranians), dropped the former "-sa" suffix and established their kingdom as Haya[s]-[s]tan (the s may come from either HayaSa, -Stan or both).
Now these are all assumptions. I'm only putting possibilities on the table. Tell me what you think of my assumptions (if there are any anachronisms, inaccuracies, etc), what you would add to them, and what assumptions, or knowledge , of the Hayasans, Azzis, Armens and/or Biainili you have.
*notice the Urartian suffix in YervandU-NI common in Armenian as well? (as in BiainI-LI, ErebU-NI, BagratUNI, AshuqiU-NI, UrmenyuqINI, AramILI, TunibU-NI).
These are my assumptions:
1. If it is true that Indo-Europeans did not originate in Anatolia or the Armenian Highlands, and that Hittites came from beyond the Caucasus and settled in the lands of the non-IE Hattians and inherited their name to become Hittites, then it is possible that Hayasans were part of those unknown IE invaders who settled a little earlier in what became later as Lesser Armenia than their counterparts in Hatti Land. It is also possible that their language changed, and that they are not related to the Hittites at all.
2. We know that Hayasan and Hittites had a relationship and were often allied with the Hittites. As we know, so far, that Hayasans didn't write, we can't know what they spoke, and it is possible that Hayasans spoke the IE language of the invaders who settled in Hatti Land and became the Hittites, aka the Hittite Language.
3. As told by M. Chahin, the Armenian language's structure is so similar to the one of the IE Hittites that it is unlikely that they are unrelated. It is possible that Armens (The people of Armenos) were Phrygianized Hittites or just plainly Phrygians with Hittite influence, or not. We can also assume that, assuming Hayasans spoke a language close to the Hittites, were Phrygianized (yeah... a lot of assumptions, but this is how we come up with theories and reach discoveries, right?).
4. The way I like to understand the reason why we call ourselves Hays and foreigners call us Armenians it is through this analogy:
Take a Greek girl called Armina. Then take an Armenian man called Hayk. Now imagine that Hayk and Armina get married, and Armina moves in the family of Hayk. The Greeks and all those involved with the Greeks will/might call that family "the family of Armina" because she is related to them, but the family will refer to itself as the family of Hayk because he is natively in that family and Armina is the foreigner. But the flaw is the language (hence the point of this thread): why would the children of Hayk speak the language of their mother Armina and forget the language of their father, keeping only some elements of it?
5. Biainili/Urartu was a federative kingdom, or a multi-ethnic empire sharing a border with Hayasa. Historians associate Hayasa with Azzi. If we can assume that Hayasa and Azzi are/were once one state(or related), then we can assume that Azzis may have referred to themselves the same way as Hayasans, knowing that the Azzi portion became almost half of the imperial lands of Urartu, we can assume that the Orontids and/or Yervandunis* came from the inhabitants of Azzi who were of Hayasan origin and when the empire fell from the hands of the ethnic Biaini, they took the throne and changed the name from Biainili (name of the dominating ethnic group) to their own name, Hayastan. This assumption may also be I retold by replacing the Azzis with Hayasans living under Urartu (as it is likely that the north-west portion of Urartu had a geographic overlap with part of Hayasa).
6. All this assuming Hayasans acquired the -stan suffix in their language under the Median rule (assuming -stan was a suffix used by those Iranians), dropped the former "-sa" suffix and established their kingdom as Haya[s]-[s]tan (the s may come from either HayaSa, -Stan or both).
Now these are all assumptions. I'm only putting possibilities on the table. Tell me what you think of my assumptions (if there are any anachronisms, inaccuracies, etc), what you would add to them, and what assumptions, or knowledge , of the Hayasans, Azzis, Armens and/or Biainili you have.
*notice the Urartian suffix in YervandU-NI common in Armenian as well? (as in BiainI-LI, ErebU-NI, BagratUNI, AshuqiU-NI, UrmenyuqINI, AramILI, TunibU-NI).
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