You see, you are making the same assumption in your questions, attributing prosperity with empires or states.
Question: Why have all historically affluent peoples been organized into empires, nation-states, or city-states?
What we know as city is precisely that which since ancient times is synonymous with trade, irrespective of the State aspect or not. It is because of cities which we signify trade, and ergo prosperity. This question is faulty for it assumes only the obvious that there are affluent people in empires, nation-states, or city states. You speak of it as if it's something good, not realizing that because of invasions and wars, it hampers on trade, and prosperity therefore those that are prosperous lose out in times of wars, and depressions, caused by them. If you read The Logic of Collective Action: Public Goods and the Theory of Groups by Mancur Olsen, you will see he brilliantly displays his study on collective action, in which he states that iindividuals have no economic incentive to participate in seeking large group collective goods unless forced through coercion, or presented with some sort of selective alternative.
Obviously due to your lack of knowledge regrding economics, you have asked a question which is the heart of Austrian economics, and it will take more than paragraphs to answer you, but suffice to say that you attributed the Industrial Revolution to Nation-States, i.e. politics, and not praxaeological laws of human action, highlights your misconception. In his own words regarding political economy, he says "They do not tell us much about the relationships between the form of government and the fortunes of the economy or adequately explain why some societies are rich and others are poor". Of course he likens government to a stationary bandit, which will protect its "goods" and invest in "public goods" but only to a limited extent. Since politicians do not produce goods or services, i.e. do not have to labor for their income like the rest of people, because their income is guaranteed through coercion ( taxation ) there is no way to know what the price of their labor is, or how to calculate the GDP, and yes it means the present "GDP" is a false one, not yielding a true result of the conditions given.
Question:Why have all peoples not under a government been conquered by those who were?
This has already been answered in my many boring and tedious discussions with you and surfer and everyone else. All governments come into existence via force. This is not a question of government, since even the family is a form of government, it's a question of what type, i.e. individual, familial, central, etc.?
Question: Why have all historically affluent peoples been organized into empires, nation-states, or city-states?
What we know as city is precisely that which since ancient times is synonymous with trade, irrespective of the State aspect or not. It is because of cities which we signify trade, and ergo prosperity. This question is faulty for it assumes only the obvious that there are affluent people in empires, nation-states, or city states. You speak of it as if it's something good, not realizing that because of invasions and wars, it hampers on trade, and prosperity therefore those that are prosperous lose out in times of wars, and depressions, caused by them. If you read The Logic of Collective Action: Public Goods and the Theory of Groups by Mancur Olsen, you will see he brilliantly displays his study on collective action, in which he states that iindividuals have no economic incentive to participate in seeking large group collective goods unless forced through coercion, or presented with some sort of selective alternative.
Obviously due to your lack of knowledge regrding economics, you have asked a question which is the heart of Austrian economics, and it will take more than paragraphs to answer you, but suffice to say that you attributed the Industrial Revolution to Nation-States, i.e. politics, and not praxaeological laws of human action, highlights your misconception. In his own words regarding political economy, he says "They do not tell us much about the relationships between the form of government and the fortunes of the economy or adequately explain why some societies are rich and others are poor". Of course he likens government to a stationary bandit, which will protect its "goods" and invest in "public goods" but only to a limited extent. Since politicians do not produce goods or services, i.e. do not have to labor for their income like the rest of people, because their income is guaranteed through coercion ( taxation ) there is no way to know what the price of their labor is, or how to calculate the GDP, and yes it means the present "GDP" is a false one, not yielding a true result of the conditions given.
Question:Why have all peoples not under a government been conquered by those who were?
This has already been answered in my many boring and tedious discussions with you and surfer and everyone else. All governments come into existence via force. This is not a question of government, since even the family is a form of government, it's a question of what type, i.e. individual, familial, central, etc.?
Comment