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Armenian women are expected to remain 'pure' until marriage. They are otherwise considered to have shamed themselves and their families and are considered to no longer be viable for marriage, becasue making a choice that goes against societal norms invalidates them as people.
Moving my clear bias in favor of making an informed choice aside, what do the conservatives among you classify as 'pure'?
Is there a difference between a woman who has sex to manipulate someone and a woman who has sex out of love in a long-term relationship?
At what stage in physical intimacy is a woman considered defiled? When she kisses someone? If the couple feels under one another's clothes? After oral sex? Or only after penetration takes place?
If a man and a woman are together for decades, live together, and are effectively married in every way but the legal form, for whatever reason, is it valid for them to have sex?
Is a woman impure if she has sex during marriage not out of love, but in an attempt to manipulate her husband and extort favors out of him?
In marriage, would engaging in BDSM make a woman impure if she does it for her pleasure? Would it make her impure if she engages in it solely for her husband's pleasure?
What conduct would make a man impure? Would a man who fantasizes about raping young girls but remains a virgin be pure while a man who has sex out of love be impure?
Why are there different standards for men than for women? Why is a woman who has sex out of wedlock considered unmarriable, but a man who has sex out of wedlock is?
And most importantly, I would like to hear some concrete reasons as to why sex between consenting adults out of wedlock is immoral.
Moving my clear bias in favor of making an informed choice aside, what do the conservatives among you classify as 'pure'?
Is there a difference between a woman who has sex to manipulate someone and a woman who has sex out of love in a long-term relationship?
At what stage in physical intimacy is a woman considered defiled? When she kisses someone? If the couple feels under one another's clothes? After oral sex? Or only after penetration takes place?
If a man and a woman are together for decades, live together, and are effectively married in every way but the legal form, for whatever reason, is it valid for them to have sex?
Is a woman impure if she has sex during marriage not out of love, but in an attempt to manipulate her husband and extort favors out of him?
In marriage, would engaging in BDSM make a woman impure if she does it for her pleasure? Would it make her impure if she engages in it solely for her husband's pleasure?
What conduct would make a man impure? Would a man who fantasizes about raping young girls but remains a virgin be pure while a man who has sex out of love be impure?
Why are there different standards for men than for women? Why is a woman who has sex out of wedlock considered unmarriable, but a man who has sex out of wedlock is?
And most importantly, I would like to hear some concrete reasons as to why sex between consenting adults out of wedlock is immoral.
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