Originally posted by Hellektor
The term itself can only mean someone who is against, jews, Arabs, Assyrians etc and you understood the term properly (which shown that you were a thinking person even as a kid), whereas most people don't understand anything and eat up everything fed to them via the jew controlled media in particular and the brainwashing facilities aka the American Education System.
You are absolutely right about the way they they use that term to avoid using the word jew. They claim that the term was invented as a more "euphonius" way of saying "judenhass" (The word "anti-Semitism" was coined in Germany in 1879 by Wilhelm Marr as a more euphonious way of saying "Judenhass" (Jew-hatred)http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/13706a.htm ). Why would they need a more "euphonius" way of saying "judenhass"? Because most people don't like jews anyway and don't care about the "judenhass" that they bring upon themselves. But "anti-semitism" sound like it's something other than "judenhass" and too difficult for the average lame-brain to figure out that the jews rendered it to be a totally bogus and meaningless word, especially when people and even the jews who use that term start calling the Arabs "anti-semite". Manwhile in reality, the Arabs are more semite than the jews are, not only because most jews aren't semitic racially since most of them aren't even descendanys of the israelites, but actually descendants from Mongolian tribes like the Khazars (which explains their afinity with the mogolic turks), but most jews don't speak a semitic language hebrew either and this would disqualify most of them from even being called semites if we go by what the jews themselves say ("This theory of semites as a race has been discredited a long time ago. Semite refers to a group of languages only." http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/13706a.htm ), and the Arabs would most certainly be more semitic than the jews are because all Arabs speak semitic languages and there are much more Arabs in the world than there are jews.
BTW, the jews also claim that when the term is used in referance to jews only, the correct spelling of the term is the non-hyphenated "antisemitism" ("The word antisemite was invented for and always has been used for the purpose of denoting jew directed hatred....the spelling ought to be antisemitism without the hyphen" http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/13706a.htm ) and they say this is done in order not to cause any confusion, but look up the non-hyphenated form of the word and you will see that it doesn't even exist.
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